If they have children, what fraction do you expect to not be susceptible to polycystic kidney disease?

If they have children, what fraction do you expect to not be susceptible to polycystic kidney disease?A man and a woman both have the dominant and autosomally inherited trait of familial polycystic kidney disease. Both the man and woman are heterozygous for the disease and normal alleles. If they have children, what fraction do you expect to not be susceptible to polycystic kidney disease?

Does this mean that if you have the dominant trait you will have the disease?

So if you set H=disease h=normal and you do the pedigree, you get:

HH | Hh
--------------
Hh | hh

So three are dominant (one is homo, other is hetero), so these will be diseased while the recessive (hh) is normal.

Is that correct?

Posted by Sakura
Yes =]

Posted by JIM
No, if both are hetero(different) they have the genotype Hh
as in Hh x Hh

H is dominant and means will have the disease if such an allele is present.

Genotypes of offspring are:

HH Hh Hh hh i.e. 3 to 1 chance of developing the condition. Or 1 in 3 not to be susceptible!

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