I apparently have a kidney disease?Or, at best, a 50% chance of having it as my 5 year younger brother was just diagnosed.
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
My issue is, I am 48 and have NO insurance. The disease is apparently genetic.
I was thinking about buying a high deductible insurance policy next year because frankly, I figured I will be having a heart attack sometime in the next 10 years or so.
My question is, since i have not been tested or diagnosed would insurance cover me if I bought it ? Would there be a delay, like a year or would they never cover me at all ?
Finally, is it safe to ask my Dr about it or would that screw up any chance of being covered by insurance assuming I indeed have it and I probably do.
My only symptom would be lack of energy, tiredness but that might just be because Im 48. Plus, I have extra weight around my belly which may or may not be enlarged kidneys, again, it could be because Im 48 and eat a lot.
My brother urinated blood after one of his kids kicked him in the stomach while playing.
Posted by debijs
~~Get your insurance first. You have not been diagnosed with it and may never have it. When you fill out the application, just honestly answer all questions. You do not need to ever write down what you may think you are at risk for, because we are all at risk for something. So get the insurance asap, it is imperative to have health insurance if you can possible afford the premiums.~~
Posted by Zarnev
Insurance companies cannot use genetic information as a basis for denial or rateups. You do not need to mention anything and as long as you do not have any symptoms you'll be OK. There will be no delay. If you do have any symptoms then you do have a pre-existing condition.
If you do not have any symptoms and you ask your doctor about it they may run tests which could then "screw up" your chances.
Posted by mbrcatz
There is a HUGE difference between you HAVING kidney disease, and having a 50/50 chance of developing it.
This is NOT a preexisting condition for you. You have NO symptoms, right? As long as you have no symptoms, it's not preexisting, and they'll cover you.
What EXACTLY are you asking your doctor about? Yes, if you go in and request some tests now, then the condition becomes preexisting if you get the diagnosis now - even if you have no symptoms.
And if you say you have no symptoms, get the insurance, and next month go in and ask for tests . . . the insurance is probably going to assume you lied about having symptoms.
Posted by What the?
You have a 50/50 chance of NOT having the disease. You have no diagnosis , symptoms nor have sought medical treatment for this. You do not need to list it on your health questionnaire. If you discuss it with your doctor, it will be added to your chart and could potentially be considered pre-x Good luck!
Posted by StephenWeinstein
If it is in fact genetic and dominant and one of your parents had it, then you have a 50% chance.
If it is in fact genetic and dominant and none of your parents had it, then either your brother has a mutation and did not inherit it from his parents, or you do not really have the same parents as each other. Either way, your risk is no worse than the average person: virtually zero.
If it is genetic, but is recessive, not dominant, then you have only a 25% chance.
If it is not genetic, your risk is no worse than the average person: virtually zero.
The one thing that you definitely do not have is "at best, a 50% chance". You have, at worst, a 50% chance, and perhaps not that bad. Definitely, not worse than 50%.
You should, in this order:
1. Get health insurance, immediately.
2. After you get health insurance, ask a doctor about it and get tested.
Orignal From: Kidney Disease: I apparently have a kidney disease?
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