How would the urine of a person suffering from acute kidney failure be different from healthy kidneys?
Posted by RetroBlader
In some forms of acute kdiney failure, a person may not produce urine at all (anuria), or produce very little (oliguria). However, in other forms of acute renal failure, the person may pee more than normal (polyuria).
So there is no "standard sick urine" which all people with acute kidney failure produce.
To answer your question, you also need to consider what "urine from healthy kidneys" may be like:
When the kidneys are working properly, they regulate the amount of water and minerals in the body by excreting the excess in the urine. That's why when we are thirsty, we only pee a little bit of dark, concentrated urine, and when we drink a lot of water, we pee a lot, and urine is usually very pale. So the urine from healthy kidneys is always changing, to meet the body's constantly-changing needs.
In acute kidney failure, the kidneys are injured by something, and they lose the ability to keep up with the body's needs.
In short, a person with acute kidney failure may produce many different kinds of urine, but they will never be "appropriate for the body's needs" like normal urine would, and that's the biggest difference.
If I confused you too much, let me give you an analogy using cars. "How would the speed of a problematic car be different from speed of a normally-functioning car?"
Cars with engine problems may not be able to go fast enough on the freeway, and cars with brake problems may not be able to go slow enough on a downhill road. A normally functioning car will go fast on a freeway and slow in a school zone, DEPENDING on the need of its driver.
Hope that makes it easier to understand?
Posted by john S
Sometimes the urine is foamy. This is due to the passing of protien. A symptom of kidneys not fully functioning properly.
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